1. Describe how to avoid the propeller(s) when approaching an aircraft.	1. Approach fixed-wing aircraft from the rear. (first-jump course outline)
2. Who is responsible for seat belt use in the aircraft?	2. pilot and jumper (FAR 91.107.A.1 through .3)
3. When must seat belts be fastened?	3. movement on the surface (taxi), takeoff, and landing (FAR 91.107.A.2)
4. From whom do you take directions in the event of an aircraft problem?	4. my instructor (first-jump course outline)
5. Why is it important to exit on “Go!” (or “Arch!”)?	5. AFF and tandem students: helps student and instructors to leave at the same time all students: to leave at the right place over the ground (first-jump course outline)
6. Where does the wind come from initially upon exit from the aircraft?	6. ahead (first-jump course outline)
7. Why do skydivers first learn to fall stable face to earth (think in terms of the equipment)?	7. best position for deployment (first-jump course outline)
8. What does a canopy do immediately following a turn?	8. dives (first-jump course outline)
9. What are the landing priorities?	9. a. Land with the wing level and flying in a straight line. b. Land in a clear and open area, avoiding obstacles. c. Flare to at least the half-brake position. d. Perform a parachute landing fall (first-jump course outline)
10. What is the purpose of the landing flare?	10. convert forward speed to lift (first-jump course outline)
11. Describe the procedure for a hard landing (parachute landing fall or PLF).	11. Student should demonstrate: feet and knees together, hands and elbows in, roll on landing. (first-jump course outline)
1. Who must directly supervise your student training jumps?	1. USPA Instructor rated for my discipline (BSRs 2-1.F.2.b)
2. What is your most important task when in freefall?	2. altitude awareness to recognize and act at the assigned pull altitude (Category B outline)
3. What are the maximum winds in which any student may jump?	3. ten mph for a round reserve canopy; 14 mph for a ram-air reserve, waiverable by an S&TA (BSR 2-1.G.1)
4. How would you clear a pilot chute hesitation?	4. Change body position to modify the air flow over my back (Category A and B outline)
5. In the event of a canopy problem, students should decide and act about executing emergency procedures by what altitude?	5. 2,500 feet (SIM 5-1.E)
6. How would you address the following routine opening problems: line twist, slider up, end cell closure?	6. a. Before releasing the brakes, spread risers or twist risers to transfer line twist to risers, kick in opposite direction, watch altitude to 2,500 feet. b. Pump rear risers or steering controls at the bottom of the stroke while watching altitude to 2,500 feet. c. Pull toggles to flare position and hold (or pull down rear risers and hold) and watch altitude. If stubborn, determine controllability with turn and flare by 2,500 feet.
7. What is the appropriate action if below 1,000 feet without a landable parachute?	7. Immediately deploy the reserve parachute, but not below 1,000 feet with an SOS system. (Category A and B outline)
8. If the pilot chute goes over the front of the canopy after it has opened, how can you tell if it’s a malfunction?	8. If the canopy flares and turns correctly, it is probably safe to land. (Category A and B outline)
9. What is the correct response to an open container in freefall using a hand-deployed system?	9. no more than two tries or two seconds to locate and deploy the main pilot chute; if no success, cut away and deploy the reserve (SIM Section 5-1.E)
10. If part of the deployed parachute is caught on the jumper or the equipment (horseshoe),what is the correct response?	10. Cut away and deploy the reserve. (Category A and B outline)
11. If the pilot chute extracts the deployment bag from the parachute container (backpack) but the deployment bag fails to release the parachute canopy for inflation, what is the correct response?	11. Cut away and deploy the reserve. (Category A and B outline)
12. What are the compass headings of the runway nearest the DZ at your airport?	12. local runway headings (Instructor)
13. What compass directions do the runway heading numbers represent (northeast-southwest; north-south, etc.)?	13. cardinal directions of the reference runway (Instructor)
14. How long is the longest runway at your airport?	14. local runway length (Instructor)
15. Describe the three legs of the canopy landing pattern with relation to the wind direction.	15. downwind (with the wind), base (across the wind but downwind of the target), and final (into the wind) (Category A and B outline)
16. At what altitude over the ground do aircraft enter the traffic pattern at your airport?	16. local pattern entry altitude (Instructor)
17. Why is it undesirable to land off the end of a runway?	17. approaching and departing aircraft (Category B outline)
1. In flat and stable freefall at terminal velocity, how long does it take an average jumper to fall 1,000 feet?	1. 5.5 seconds (Category C syllabus)
2. What is the correct procedure for recovering from instability to the belly-to-earth position?	2. altitude, arch, legs, relax (Category C syllabus)
3. Which is better, to pull at the planned altitude or to fall lower to get stable before pulling?	3. Pull at the planned altitude, regardless of stability. (Category C syllabus)
4. What is the purpose of the wave-off before deployment?	4 to signal other jumpers (Category C syllabus)
5. What is the purpose of the parachute landing fall (PLF), and why is it important for skydivers?	5. It protects against hard landings, and all skydivers have hard landings (Category C syllabus)
6. What part of the landing pattern is most dangerous to skydivers?	6. the intersection of the base and final approach legs (Category C syllabus)
7. How do higher wind speeds affect the planned landing pattern as compared to the pattern plan for a calm day?	7. shortens the final approach, shortens the base leg, lengthens the downwind leg, and places the planned pattern entry point farther upwind (Category C syllabus)
8. In moderately strong winds, how far downwind of an obstacle would you expect to find turbulence?	8. 10-20 times the height of the obstacle (Category C syllabus)
9. What is the best procedure to use when flying your canopy in turbulent conditions?	9. Keep the canopy flying in a straight line at full flight (or as directed by the owner’s manual). (Category C syllabus or owner’s manual)
10. What weather conditions and wind direction(s) are most likely to cause turbulence at your drop zone?	10. according to the local landing area and obstacles (Instructor)
11. Why is it important to protect your parachute system operation handles when in and around the aircraft?	11. keeps them in place and prevents accidental or premature deployment (Category C syllabus)
12. Describe the equipment pre-flight strategy to use before putting on your gear.	12. top to bottom, back to front (Category C syllabus)
13. How does the three-ring main canopy release system disconnect the main parachute from the harness?	13. Pull the cables to release the cloth loop. (closed parachute system briefing)
14. How do you know if a reserve parachute has been packed by an FAA rigger within the last 180 days?	14. information found on the reserve packing data card (closed parachute system briefing)
15. How do you know the reserve container has not been opened since the FAA rigger last closed it?	15. rigger’s packing seal on the reserve ripcord (closed parachute system briefing)
16. If the surface winds are blowing from west to east, which direction will you face to fly the downwind leg of the landing pattern (instructor’s illustration)?	16. east (Category C syllabus)
17. What is the wing loading of the parachute you will use on your next jump?	17. Divide the exit weight by the square footage. (Instructor)
18. Which canopy size (same model design) will exhibit quicker control response? a. 210-square feet with a 210-pound jumper (geared up) b. 170 square feet with a 170-pound jumper (geared up)	18. 170 square feet/170 pounds (Category C syllabus)
19. When is it OK to attempt a stand-up landing?	19. when the jumper has control of all the variables and has executed a good flare at the appropriate altitude (Category C syllabus)
1. For planned deployment initiation at 3,000 feet, approximately how long should an average-sized jumper fall after exiting at 5,000 feet?	1. 15 seconds (Category D outline)
2. What is the most appropriate response to loss of heading control in freefall?	2. altitude, arch, legs, relax (Category D outline)
3. What is the best way to avoid a canopy collision when turning?	3. Look first in the direction of the turn. (Category D outline)
4. What is the quickest and safest way to change heading immediately after opening?	4. rear riser turn with the brakes still set (Category D outline)
5. How would you steer a parachute that has a broken brake line?	5. use the rear risers (Category D outline)
6. How would you prepare to land a canopy using the rear risers to flare?	6. practice with rear-riser flares at altitude with that canopy during a routine jump (Category D outline)
7. Describe your procedure for landing on a building	7. Disconnect the RSL (if time), contact the building feet first, PLF, cut away after landing on top of a building, wait for competent help. (SIM Section 5-1.F)
8. What is the purpose of the automatic activation device?	8. to back up the jumper’s emergency procedures (SIM Section 5-3.G)
9. Describe the “check of threes.”	9. Check three-ring release system for correct assembly and RSL; three points of harness attachment for snap assembly or correct routing and adjustment; three operation handles—main activation, cutaway, reserve. (Category D outline)
10. What must the spotter do to determine what is directly underneath the aircraft while on jump run?	10. place head completely outside the aircraft and look straight down (Category D outline)
11. How far horizontally must jumpers be from any cloud? a. below 10,000 feet MSL? b. 10,000 feet MSL and above?	11. a. below 10,000 feet MSL? 2,000 feet; b. 10,000 feet MSL and above? one mile (FAR 105.17)
12. What are the minimum visibility requirements? a. below 10,000 feet MSL? b. 10,000 feet MSL and above?	12. a. below 10,000 feet MSL? three miles b. 10,000 feet MSL and above? five miles (FAR 105.17)
13. Who is responsible for a jumper observing cloud clearance requirements?	13. jumper and pilot (FAR 105.17)
14. According to the BSRs, what is the latest a student may ump?	14. All student jumps must be completed by sunset. (SIM Section 2-1.F.9)
15. Describe the technique for determining the point straight below the aircraft during jump run.	15. Determine two lines from the horizon, one ahead and one abreast, and find the intersection of those two lines. (Category D outline)
16. What must the jumper look for below before exiting the aircraft?	16. clouds and other aircraft (Category D outline)
1. What happens to a jumper’s fall rate when performing rolls, loops, or other freeflying maneuvers?	1. increases (Category E outline)
2. What happens to a visual altimeter when it’s in the jumper’s burble?	2. reads unreliably (SIM 5-3.J.6.f )
3. What is the best way to recover from a stall to full glide?	3. Smoothly raise the controls. (Category E outline)
4. Describe an aerodynamic stall as it applies to a ram-air canopy.	4. stable state of decreased glide and increased rate of descent (Category E outline)
5. When does a dynamic stall occur?	5. at the end of a flare when the jumper begins to rock back under the canopy (Category E outline)
6. What happens after a dynamic stall if the tail is held lower than the nose?	6. full stall (Category E outline)
7. What is the best way to determine a canopy’s optimum flare speed and depth for landing?	7. Practice different rates of flare entry at different depths of flare (Category E outline)
8. Describe your procedure for landing in high winds.	8. Stay well downwind of any obstacle, face into the wind early, disconnect the RSL, land with a PLF, pull one toggle down completely, and after landing, cut away if necessary. (Category E outline)
9. How many A-lines does a nine-cell canopy have?	9. ten (Category E Open Canopy Orientation)
10. To what part of the canopy do the steering lines (brake lines) connect?	10. tail or trailing edge (Category E Open Canopy Orientation)
11. What lines go through the rear slider grommets?	11. C, D, and brakes (Category E Open Canopy Orientation)
12. Where does the main pilot chute bridle attach to the canopy?	12. top center (Category E Open Canopy Orientation)
13. Who may pack a main parachute?	13. FAA rigger, person jumping the parachute, person under rigger’s supervision (FAR 105.43)
14. How often do the main and reserve parachute need to be packed?	14. every 180 days (FAR 105.43)
15. Who is in command of the aircraft?	15. pilot (FAR 91.3.A)
16. Name two purposes for wearing seat belts in an aircraft.	16. to maintain the correct balance; protection in a crash (Category E Aircraft briefing)
17. Who is responsible that the aircraft is in condition for safe flight?	17. pilot (FAR 91.7.B)
18. Above what altitude MSL is the pilot of an unpressurized aircraft required to breathe supplemental oxygen?	18. 14,000 feet (FAR 91.211.A.2)
19. Above what altitude MSL are all occupants of an unpressurized aircraft required to be provided with supplemental oxygen?	19. 15,000 feet (SIM 2-1.M; FAR 91.211.A.3)
20. In an aircraft with the exit door near the back, what must jumpers do to maintain the balance during exit procedures?	20. remain forward until it is time for their group to exit (Category E Aircraft Briefing)
21. What is the biggest danger to a jumper when flying the canopy pattern?	21. other canopies (Category E outline)
22. What is the best way to avoid a canopy collision?	22. see and remain clear of other jumpers. (Category E outline)
23. How does the RSL work?	23. forms a separable link between the main riser and reserve ripcord so that cutting away the main activates the reserve, if the RSL is hooked up (SIM Section 5-3.F)
24. What would happen if the main riser attached to the RSL breaks?	24. The reserve deploys with the main still attached by the other riser. (SIM Section 5-3.F.)
25. What is the best way to prevent risers from breaking?	25. inspection and maintenance; correct packing, tight line stowage, and stable deployment, all to prevent hard openings (SIM Section 5-3.F)
26. Name one way to prevent a dual deployment.	26. Any of the following: a. Deploy the main parachute at the correct altitude to avoid AAD activation. b. Initiate malfunction procedures high enough to cut away safely and avoid AAD activation c. Maintain and correctly operate hand-deployed pilot chutes, especially collapsibles. d. Protect equipment before exit to prevent pins or handles from being knocked loose. e. Maneuver gently below the AAD’s firing range (Category E outline)
27. What is generally the best action to take in the following two-canopy-out scenarios ? a. Biplane b. Side by side c. Downplane	27. a. Biplane Release the brakes on the front canopy only and steer that canopy gently; PLF. b. Side by side Release the brakes on the dominant canopy only and steer that canopy gently; or release the RSL (if time) and cut away; PLF. c. Downplane Release the RSL (if time) and cut away. (SIM 5-1.E)
1. What is the best way to change the direction of canopy flight while conserving the most altitude?	1. braked turns (Category F outline)
2. What happens if a canopy is controlled too deeply in the brakes?	2. stalls (Category F outline)
3. Describe the difference between flaring from half brakes and full glide.	3. Flaring from half brakes requires a quicker stroke, the stroke is shorter, and stalls occur sooner. (Category F outline)
4. How does the half-braked position affect the canopy’s flight?	4. slows descent, changes glide (Category F outline)
5. What is a glide path?	5. The angle at which the parachute descends towards its projected landing point. (Category F outline)
6. How do you determine your glide path?	6. Look ahead to find the point on the ground that appears not to rise or sink. (Category F outline)
7. How does wind affect the glide path?	7. The glide path will become steeper as the wind decreases when flying with the wind. The glide path will become steeper as the wind speed increases when flying into the wind. (Category F outline)
8. How is heading corrected during a track?	8. Dip one shoulder slightly in the direction of the turn. (Category F outline)
9. When making tracking jumps from a large plane, why is it important to track perpendicular to the jump run?	9. to avoid other groups ahead and behind (Category F outline)
10. What is the ground speed of a jump aircraft with a true airspeed of 90 knots when flying against a 50-knot headwind on jump run?	10. 40 knots (pre-flight planning)
11. How can jumpers assure adequate separation between groups exiting the aircraft?	11. gauge separation according to position over the ground (SIM Section 5-7)
12. What are the three most important aspects of packing the main canopy?	12. lines straight and in place in the center, slider up, tight line stows (Category F outline)
13. How can you tell if the RSL is routed correctly?	13. clear path from snap shackle to guide ring (Category F outline)
14. What is the make and model of parachute system you are jumping? a. Main canopy? b. Harness and container system? c. Automatic activation device?	14. What is the make and model of parachute system you are jumping? a. Main canopy? b. Harness and container system? c. Automatic activation device? (equipment data) (Instructor)
15. What is the minimum pull altitude allowed for student skydivers and A license holders?	15. 3,000 feet (SIM 2-1.H)
16. What are the maximum winds allowed for student skydivers?	16. 14 mph (SIM 2-1.G)
17. If a jumper falls for one minute through upper winds averaging 30 mph from the west: a. How far will the jumper drift? Note: 60 mph = 1 mile per minute; therefore, 30 mph = 1/2 mile per minute. b. In which direction?	17. a. 1/2 mile b. east (Category F outline)
18. Describe your procedure for landing in power lines.	18. Avoid the area early during the descent, minimum braked turn necessary to avoid lines, land parallel to the wires, braked landing, prepare for PLF, try to touch only one line at a time, wait for help and confirmation that the power has been turned off and will remain off until recovery operations are complete. (SIM 5-1.F)
19. In the event of an aircraft emergency with no students or instructors aboard, who should coordinate procedures between the pilot and the other jumpers on the load?	19. jumpmaster, or spotter (Category F outline)
20. At your drop zone, what is the lowest altitude the pilot would likely ask jumpers to leave the plane during a routine engine-out emergency?	20. DZ policy (Instructor)
21. In an aircraft emergency, what is the lowest exit altitude that you would deploy your main parachute before choosing the reserve instead?	21. school policy (Instructor or pilot)
22. How many jumps are required for the USPA A license?	22. 25 (SIM 3-1.E, A license)
23. What does a USPA A license permit a skydiver to do?	23. jump without supervision, pack his or her own main parachute, engage in basic group jumps, and perform water jumps (SIM 3-1.E, A license)
24. What should an A-licensed jumper do to regain currency after a ten-week period of inactivity?	24. make at least one jump under the supervision of a USPA instructional rating holder (SIM Section 5-2, Recurrency Training)
25. What should an A-licensed jumper do to regain currency after a four-month period of inactivity?	25. make at least one jump beginning in Category D with a USPA AFF Instructor or in Category B with a USPA IAD Static-Line, or Tandem Instructor before proceeding to unsupervised freefall (SIM Section 5-2, Recurrency Training)
1. What is the primary directional control when moving forward to dock in freefall?	1. legs (Category G outline)
2. What is the minimum break-off altitude for freefall in groups of five or fewer?	2. 1,500 feet above planned deployment altitude (SIM Section 6-1.C)
3. What is the danger of entering a toggle turn too quickly?	3. line twist (Category G outline)
4. What does a canopy do after completing a maximum input toggle turn?	4. dives (Category G outline)
5. What are the three biggest dangers of a hard toggle turn near the ground?	5. line twist, collision with jumpers, collision with the ground (Category G outline)
6. What are the first things to do in the event of a collision and entanglement with another jumper?	6. check altitude, establish communication (SIM 5-1.H)
7. What is the most critical aspect of closing the main container equipped with a hand-deployed pilot chute?	7. bridle routing and placement (packing lesson)
8. Why is it a bad idea to drag the harness and container system when stowing the lines?	8. unnecessary wear on the three-ring release webbing and loops (Category G outline)
9. When velcro is used on the brake system, why is it a good idea to place your toggles back on the velcro after you land?	9. covers the hook velcro, which can damage other components, prevents tangles (Category G outline)
10. Who may maintain a main parachute system?	10. FAA rigger (FAR 65.125.a.1)
11. Why is it bad to leave a parachute in the sun?	11. Ultraviolet rays degrade nylon. (Category G outline)
12. What damage could occur from storing a parachute for prolonged periods in a car during the summer?	12. shorter life for AAD batteries, stow band degradation (Category G outline)
13. What happens to velcro touch fastener when it is used frequently?	13. loses tackiness (Category G outline)
14. What happens to stiffened tuck flaps that are frequently used?	14. distortion (Category G outline)
15. Who publishes and enforces rules regarding parachute packing and parachute maintenance?	15. FAA (rigger briefing)
16. What may result if recovering altitude (floating up) under a freefall formation?	16. collision with formation, funnel (Category G outline)
17. What extra consideration is required when wearing an AAD near the open door of an aircraft or when climbing out?	17. AAD activation near the open door of an aircraft presents a dangerous situation. (Category G outline)
18. Why is it important to remain clear of the area directly above and below other jumpers in freefall?	18. possibility of AAD activation or other accidental or unplanned pack opening (Category G outline)
19. Why is it important to maintain an automatic activation device to the manufacturer’s standards?	19. to improve their chances for correct operation, to help prevent premature AAD activations, to comply with the law (Category G outline)
20. What is the correct response to a canopy entanglement with another jumper below 1,000 feet if it appears the two canopies cannot be separated in time for a safe landing?	20. Deploy the reserve (may not be a safe option with an SOS system). (SIM Section 5-1.H)
21. Describe your procedure for landing in trees.	21. Face into the wind, prepare for PLF, flare to half brakes, protect face and under arms, wait for help. (SIM 5-1.F)
22. What does a tall cumulus cloud indicate?	22. thunderstorms in the area (SIM Section 5-5)
23. What is the most dangerous part of an incoming front for aircraft and skydivers?	23. thunderstorms in the gust front; rapid and significant changes in winds (SIM Section 5-5)
24. How does a canopy’s air speed, ground speed, and descent rate change with an increase in density altitude?	24. each will increase (SIM Section 5-5)
1. Why is it important to look ahead during a swoop toward other jumpers in freefall?	1. to see others and avoid a collision (Category H outline)
2. What is the fastest way to slow down from a freefall swoop approach?	2. slow fall position with arms forward and knees down (Category H outline)
3. What is the danger of a loose or worn main container closing loop?	3. premature deployment (Category H outline)
4. Why must three-ring release cables be cleaned periodically?	4. Sludge-like dirt and oil deposits cause them to bind. (Category H outline)
5. If you see that you have begun to turn too low to the ground for a safe landing, what should be your first response?	5. Neutralize the turn and get the canopy overhead. (SIM Section 5-1.I)
6. What effect does pulling on the front risers have on the canopy?	6. dramatic increase in rate of descent (jump experience)
7. When performing front riser maneuvers, what should you do with the toggles?	7. Keep them in your hands. (Category H outline)
8. What are the two biggest dangers of front-riser maneuvers near the ground?	8. collisions with other jumpers, collision with the ground (Category H outline)
9. What are some of the possible results of a turn made too low to the ground?	9. serious injury or death (SIM Section 5-1.I)
10. Describe your procedure for landing in water.	10. Inflate flotation device, disconnect chest strap and RSL, prepare for PLF, face into wind, flare, hold breath, cut away once feet are wet, remove leg straps, swim upwind; if under the canopy, dive deep and swim away or follow one seam until out from underneath. (SIM Section 5-1.F)
11. What is the maximum percentage of visible wear allowable on a main closing loop?	11. ten percent (Category H outline)
12. Can a jump be legally made from an aircraft without an operating radio?	12. no (FAR 105.13.a.1)
13. What is the least notification the FAA requires before any jump or series of jumps may be made?	13. one hour (FAR 105.25.a.3)
14. Where can a pilot look to determine if a plane is approved for flight with the door removed?	14. AC 105.2, Appendix 2, or aircraft owner’s manual (Category H outline)
15. Whose name will the FAA require when filing a notification for parachute jumping?	15. person giving notice (FAR 105.15.a.6)

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